To me, profiting from arbitrage through manual transactions requires first to find a sell order lower than a buy offer over the same pair elsewhere.

When the Wikipedia article says price, I guess that's what it must ultimately mean since, like in your example, the price on Bitstamp could possibly only be reflecting the last buy and the one on HitBTC just be happening to represent the last sell, while the reality could disappointedly be that both exchanges are offering about the equivalent order books in terms of prices.

I guess funds and bots may operate differently but as an individual, I would actually have to go see and on both of these exchanges if these prices really do represent a true opportunity.

Sorry if I may sound like doing semantics, I'm just trying to share what I, myself, have experienced and maybe find validation as to my understanding of the matter.